....in Q3 '09 vs. Q2 '09. The yoy decline was 12.8% in Q2, versus 14.4% in Q3. Considering that the June quarter was comparing a "pre-panic" quarter to a "post-panic" quarter, wouldn't one have expected the decline for Q2 yoy to be more than the Q3 yoy? Especially further considering that Q3 '08 already had some financial panic based revenue declines in there....AND Q3 '09 already saw some additional economic RECOVERY....again, why would Q3 station op. income be down on a larger percentage basis (yoy) than Q2. Is all of that difference accounted for in political? (I still can't tell, from management's comments in the cc if the "net" $1.x million in year ago Q3 political was a net difference added to the year ago EBITDA, or revenue.....or if we have to get the Q3 '09 political number [which they did NOT provide in the call], to figure out the difference...and then slap an appropriate EBITDA number on it.)

Can anyone help me out...or do I have to call the company?